Ok I read the Wikipedia article so I have a (VERY basic) understanding of some of the most important rules now.
Is there any situation in which a batter might intentionally let the pitch hit him to advance to first base? Does that work or will the Umpire usually decide in favor of the pitcher?
I mean: can you tell if the batter would have been able to avoid being hit? (As far as I understand getting hit be the ball only helps if you couldn’t avoid it)